D.49 The generalized variational principle

The purpose of this note is to verify directly that the variation of the expec­tation energy is zero at any energy eigenstate, not just the ground state.

Suppose that you are trying to find some energy eigenstate $\psi_n$ with eigenvalue $E_n$, and that you are close to it, but no cigar. Then the wave function can be written as

\begin{displaymath}
\psi=
\varepsilon_1 \psi_1
+ \varepsilon_2 \psi_2
+ ...
...epsilon_n) \psi_n
+ \varepsilon_{n+1} \psi_{n+1}
+ \ldots
\end{displaymath}

where $\psi_n$ is the one you want and the remaining terms together are the small error in wave function, written in terms of the eigen­functions. Their coefficients $\varepsilon_1,\varepsilon_2,\ldots$ are small.

The normal­ization condition $\langle\psi\vert\psi\rangle$ $\vphantom0\raisebox{1.5pt}{$=$}$ 1 is, using ortho­normality:

\begin{displaymath}
1 =
\varepsilon_1^2
+ \varepsilon_2^2
+ \ldots
+ \...
...}^2
+ (1+\varepsilon_n)^2
+ \varepsilon_{n+1}^2
+\ldots
\end{displaymath}

The expec­tation energy is

\begin{displaymath}
\big\langle E\big\rangle =
\varepsilon_1^2 E_1
+ \vare...
...varepsilon_n)^2 E_n
+ \varepsilon_{n+1}^2 E_{n+1}
+\ldots
\end{displaymath}

or plugging in the normal­ization condition to eliminate $(1+\varepsilon_n)^2$

\begin{eqnarray*}
\big\langle E\big\rangle & = &
\varepsilon_1^2 (E_1-E_n)
...
...1}-E_n)
+ E_n
+ \varepsilon_{n+1}^2 (E_{n+1}-E_n)
+\ldots
\end{eqnarray*}

Assuming that the energy eigen­values are arranged in increasing order, the terms before $E_n$ in this sum are negative and the ones behind $E_n$ positive. So $E_n$ is neither a maximum nor a minimum; depending on conditions $\big\langle E\big\rangle $ can be greater or smaller than $E_n$.

Now, if you make small changes in the wave function, the values of $\varepsilon_1,\varepsilon_2,\ldots$ will slightly change, by small amounts that will be indicated by $\delta\varepsilon_1,\delta\varepsilon_2,\ldots$, and you get

\begin{eqnarray*}
\delta\big\langle E\big\rangle & = &
2\varepsilon_1(E_1-E_...
...\varepsilon_{n+1}(E_{n+1}-E_n)\delta\varepsilon_{n+1}
+\ldots
\end{eqnarray*}

This is zero when $\varepsilon_1$ $\vphantom0\raisebox{1.5pt}{$=$}$ $\varepsilon_2$ $\vphantom0\raisebox{1.5pt}{$=$}$ $\ldots$ $\vphantom0\raisebox{1.5pt}{$=$}$ 0, so when $\psi$ is the exact eigen­function $\psi_n$. And it is non­zero as soon as any of $\varepsilon_1,\varepsilon_2,\ldots$ is non­zero; a change in that coefficient will produce a non­zero change in expec­tation energy. So the varia­tional condition $\delta\langle{E}\rangle$ $\vphantom0\raisebox{1.5pt}{$=$}$ 0 is satisfied at the exact eigen­function $\psi_n$, but not at any nearby different wave functions.

The bottom line is that if you locate the nearest wave function for which $\delta\langle{E}\rangle$ $\vphantom0\raisebox{1.5pt}{$=$}$ 0 for all acceptable small changes in that wave function, well, if you are in the vicinity of an energy eigen­function, you are going to find that eigen­function.

One final note. If you look at the expression above, it seems like none of the other eigen­functions are eigen­functions. For example, the ground state would be the case that $\varepsilon_1$ is one, and all the other coefficients zero. So a small change in $\varepsilon_1$ would seem to produce a change $\delta\langle{E}\rangle$ in expec­tation energy, and the expec­tation energy is supposed to be constant at eigen­states.

The problem is the normal­ization condition, whose differen­tial form says that

\begin{displaymath}
0 =
2 \varepsilon_1\delta\varepsilon_1
+ 2 \varepsilon...
...n_n
+ 2 \varepsilon_{n+1}\delta\varepsilon_{n+1}
+ \ldots
\end{displaymath}

At $\varepsilon_1$ $\vphantom0\raisebox{1.5pt}{$=$}$ 1 and $\varepsilon_2$ $\vphantom0\raisebox{1.5pt}{$=$}$ $\ldots$ $\vphantom0\raisebox{1.5pt}{$=$}$ $\varepsilon_{n-1}$ $\vphantom0\raisebox{1.5pt}{$=$}$ $1+\varepsilon_n$ $\vphantom0\raisebox{1.5pt}{$=$}$ $\varepsilon_{n+1}$ $\vphantom0\raisebox{1.5pt}{$=$}$ $\ldots$ $\vphantom0\raisebox{1.5pt}{$=$}$ 0, this implies that the change $\delta\varepsilon_1$ must be zero. And that means that the change in expec­tation energy is in fact zero. You see that you really need to eliminate $\varepsilon_1$ from the list of coefficients near $\psi_1$, rather than $\varepsilon_n$ as the analysis for $\psi_n$ did, for the mathematics not to blow up. A coefficient that is not allowed to change at a point in the vicinity of interest is a confusing coefficient to work with.